Sorry, I just realised that I left out an explanation for the equivalence of the electrical model with the Wilberforce pedulum.
You can think of it this way:
1. L1 is the mass hanging at the end of the spring, no rotational component.
2. C1 is the main spring in extension, linear motion.
3. L2 is the rotational moment of inertia of the mass at the end of the spring.
4. C2 is the torsional component of the spring.
5. C3 is the spring coupling between the linear and rotational motions.
With these equivalences in place then:
a. I(L1) is linear velocity. e.g. k1*L1*I*I/2 = m*v*v/2
b. V(C1) is the linear displacement of the spring e.g. k2*C1*V*V/2 = k*x*x/2
*k1 and k2 are scale factors.
Since the voltage across L1 and C1 is the same, that means their displacement is always the same.
For the torsional component mass becomes moment of inertia and displacement becomes rotation.
The only slight anomaly is how the oscillation is started by a current suddenly switched off which would be equivalent to imparting a fixed velocity to the mass, I could have used a voltage source and some switches, equivalent to stretching the spring and releasing, but electrically the current source is more convenient. I hope this fills in some gaps from the first post.