Hi,
Thanks for helping. I am to read the paper you mentioned. It is
quite funny, I was looking for this paper but did not find anywhere
to download it
I will reply as soon as I am done, but I think I can be more precise
now concerning what I don t understand.
Here my reasoning, and what I don t understand:
. we can measure a distance by using a signal phase shift
-> ok
. but if the phase shift is >= 2pi, we don t know how many wave
periods have elapsed. the an ambiguity arises, and we cannot rely
on phase shift anymore
-> ok
. thus a second freq is used. this leads to a second phase shift.
-> I think I understand, but my opinion is we have the same limitation
as above. Here is why:
If f1 and f2 2 freqs, p1 and p2 the corresponding phase shift measured
on the receiver side, the distance formula is given by:
d = (p2 - p1) * c / 2pi (f2 - f1)
But even here, it must be that:
0 < (p2 - p1) < 2pi
no?
For instance, let f1 = 40khz and f2 = 38khz. f1 - f2 = 2khz.
If the phase shift difference has to be in [0, 2pi[ (right?), the
measurable distance is:
340 * 1 / 2000 = 17 cms no?
(340 sound speed in the air in cms/s, 2000 the freq in hertz)
If I am right, the only advantage of the method is to reduce the
freq (in the example -> 2khz from 40khz and 38khz) thus increasing
"a bit" the measurable distance.... but our phase shift is always in the
range [0,2pi[, and we cant measure a distance above this range.
Where am I wrong?
Thanks very much for helping,
Fabien.