NML gives you a calibration with a given uncertainty you can't trust them??
Calibration uncertainty does not imply stability. You get 10V uncertain to x ppm at time of calibration only. To determine uncertainty 5 days after, or 50 days after the calibration need to have measured and known stability of your DUT and methods. Having calibration obviously says nothing if DUT will meet it's 30 day/90 day/1 year specifications either (typical or not).
Getting things worse doesn't mean getting things the same amount better is possible.
The question was how accurate are the 10V from different sources if the reading agrees. The calibration uncertainties in the Fluke paper you mentioned are all lower than the resulting uncertainty, even with their prediction. That is my point.
Of course, never said otherwise, quite the opposite. I'd go further and say that agreement between meters _outside of calibration_ does not help for measurement uncertainty either.
Prediction from characterized references model, like Fluke does in 732 tests help to establish uncertainty error
between the calibration points, so you can have
some confidence that standards are in spec still, without yet sending them to calibration. Same goes to ACAL-derived points by the way, you can use it as prediction of stability, between the external calibration points with assigned uncertainty from cal lab. Sometimes it is important, for a case when 1 year specifications for the instrument are not good enough, but one cannot afford shorter calibration cycle. EDIT: this is great area here, when you can apply "typical" spec to your product, when measured by reference DMM between it's CAL cycle dates. E.g. source 10V have typical *relative* accuracy 2.5 ppm , but guaranteed spec is 7ppm (4.5ppm of reference meter + uncertainty of NML cal).
Maybe we can do some practical application as example? Sorry, but this is more of theory talk, without actual numbers in question.
No different than a quiz like:
Meter A agree to meter B within 1ppm. Meter A was calibrated 193 days ago with 10V uncertainty 2.5 ppm.
Does this mean that meter B is (+/-2.5 ppm +/-1ppm + transfer spec) uncertain on 10V ?
Answer in my books: No, not at all.
Because we don't know if meter A still +/-2.5 ppm from NML or maybe it drifted away +10 ppm by the time of comparison meter B, while meter B had +9 ppm error from the start. So meter A - B = 1ppm different means nothing without the history/stability data on BOTH units. Sure it's not likely, but this assumption is as good , as any.
But if I have meter A, meter B, meter C, meter D all measured together before the cal, and confirmed stability 2ppm/year, then I send meter A to get +/-2.5ppm uncertain NML cal, then confirm meter B,C,D to agree with returned meter A and confirmed it's still stable 2ppm/year, this will give confidence that meter A
probably is still +/-2.5ppm + drift error uncertain at 10 V. Here as result absolute calibration and uncertainty of meters B,C,D is irrelevant and not important, only their stability is. I'm sure somebody in metrology field can correct me on this.
As an extreme example, say you had two JVS systems and measure the difference between the 10V outputs. Your uncertainty for the comparison would dominated by the noise of the readings from your detector/voltmeter that measures this difference. Would that give you a better uncertainty of a single JVS or worse? If you never checked, you would assume this difference would be 0 and never would be included in the budget for a single JVS. But, knowing there is a difference, you would have to include it, right?
I would say it doesn't matter if you have one or two JVS (if they are ok), because the quantum volt itself is exact by definition
Point about JVS was that transfer from quantum voltage is not exact too, and can never be, your comparison uncertainty is never zero. So you have to include this into final result too. Because of that, the JVS system cannot have zero uncertainty in the specification. This is small difference for the practical uses, but it's there.
I always try to avoid using typical specs because it is purely marketing speech. What does typical mean? How many std. deviations are typical? If you can answer that you can calculate with "typical" numbers. But if you have that information you can also calculate confidence intervals like other companies do.
I read typical as "this is how test sample lot behaved, but your mileage may vary". You can obtain better spec once you request additional validation from manufacturer/NML for your particular specimen, or worse spec is you just get outlier unit. [emoji14]
So if you keep this in mind, there is some value of the typical spec. But like you said, your definition is different, and if you go only by maximum guaranteed specs (which is not always possible/suitable) - no problems with that too. I wouldn't say typical specs are the evil anyway, if there is a choice to have nothing at all or the typical spec - I'll take that and do own tests. One is free to ignore any typical specs , as we please. Different manufacturer or even different products from same manufacturer can have very different backing dataset for typical spec too. Just like 3458A's typical INL 0.05ppm. Lot of effort was put into this number, so as result most (but not all) units can do this INL. Or on other end of scale....typical 0ppm TCR of VPG BMF's. Yea, sure, maybe for 1 sample out of 100 pcs... :-D